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Today’s Football 2020/21 Season

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He clearly benefits and gains the advantage from being in an offside position (when the ball is first played, he's offside). He tackles blindsided, from behind.

PGMOL said the player who got the assist to the goal "is not considered to have gained an advantage"

Not for me, that.

I think in a few months there will be a quiet note it was the wrong decision and they'll revise whatever nonsense script they read.

Well, that was quick.

However, it can be revealed that PGMOL subsequently held a summit with rule-makers the International Football Association Board and UEFA to discuss the issue.

And Sportsmail can disclose that they have agreed on guidance which will be given to referees and which would see the goal disallowed if it was to happen in the future.


 
Well, that was quick.

However, it can be revealed that PGMOL subsequently held a summit with rule-makers the International Football Association Board and UEFA to discuss the issue.

And Sportsmail can disclose that they have agreed on guidance which will be given to referees and which would see the goal disallowed if it was to happen in the future.


Been watching footyfor 30 years an that’s the 1st time I’ve ever seen it happen
 

Which is fine except for the part that changing the rules based on public outrage isn't really a good strategy.

But like i said, they haven't changed the law at all, they've simply said that this specific scenario should be deemed as offside under the law rather than onside whereas before it wasn't clear, hence the debate.

Sooner or later there will be another incident that isn't expressly covered under the law and a similar debate will happen.
 
But like i said, they haven't changed the law at all, they've simply said that this specific scenario should be deemed as offside under the law rather than onside whereas before it wasn't clear, hence the debate.

Sooner or later there will be another incident that isn't expressly covered under the law and a similar debate will happen.
It's really a thin and unnecessary distinction. People got mad and they told referees to ref different because of it. At the very least wait until the end of the season and have a proper meeting on it with some transparency. It wasn't like the league was going to fall apart because refs were being slightly too lenient about when players were onside again.
 
It's really a thin and unnecessary distinction. People got mad and they told referees to ref different because of it. At the very least wait until the end of the season and have a proper meeting on it with some transparency. It wasn't like the league was going to fall apart because refs were being slightly too lenient about when players were onside again.

Sure, but an incident happened and they've clarified it rather than leaving it hanging in the air and no one knowing whether it was right or wrong.

I think basically we just need to look at it as that the officials got it wrong based not on how its written but how IFAB actually want it interpreted, because they weren't actually sure themselves so used their own interpretation.

Now IFAB have ruled so from now on refs will use that interpretation.

Obviously it might now lead to the exact same incident happening in a game from now on where the goal gets ruled out, which isn't great but we all know where we stand now.
 
So the genius' at the PL have now changed the rules mid season to make sure the Man City V Villa error doesnt happen again. All without technically admitting the made a mistake. Absolutely baffling levels of incompetence

I really hope Dean Smith and Aston Villa give this the attention it deserves.


View attachment 115511

The thing is, it states the following: '...being able to challenge Tyrone Mings in starting from an offside position, immediately after Mings had chested the ball...'

What! Did they not look at a replay? Did they not 'freeze frame'? Rodri had moved back to an onside position, and had not obstructed or interfered in Mings initially playing the ball with his chest, in any way. This is what I posted over a hundred pages earlier in this section. No surprise that the thickos who set the rules have got it wrong again...

'I don't know whether this is the clincher, but I think it is.

It shows Mings about to play the ball with his left foot, AFTER he has chested the ball down.

Rodri can be clearly seen to now be onside - check out the position of the Villa number 2 (and Rodri has not yet touched the ball).
Man City goal v Villa 02.jpg


So: prior to any contact Rodri made with the ball, he had got himself back into an onside position. That is clear from the above. He had not obstructed or prevented Mings from getting to the ball - that is 100% true. Mings had already got to the ball and chested it down without any interference from any Man City player.

Onside. Perfectly legit goal, and what a cracker it was!

I think some people on here are getting confused with the scenario of 'Player A' playing the ball forward, and 'Player B' of the same team being in an offside postion at the moment 'Player A' plays the ball forward, but by the time 'Player B' touches it he is ostensibly 'onside'. No, at the point of the ball last being played, 'Player B' is offside. Last night, at the time the ball was last played, Rodri was onside, as evidenced by my earlier screencap, and the above.
 

Sure, but an incident happened and they've clarified it rather than leaving it hanging in the air and no one knowing whether it was right or wrong.

I think basically we just need to look at it as that the officials got it wrong based not on how its written but how IFAB actually want it interpreted, because they weren't actually sure themselves so used their own interpretation.

Now IFAB have ruled so from now on refs will use that interpretation.

Obviously it might now lead to the exact same incident happening in a game from now on where the goal gets ruled out, which isn't great but we all know where we stand now.
IMO, they haven't clarified it at all.

The point not answered is: When is a player, moving back from an offside position, deemed to be onside again?

Is it when he/she reaches an 'onside position' again, or is it when a 'passage of play' is completed? And what is the definition of a passage of play? Was the first passage of play completed when the Man City player headed the GK clearance forward; the Man City player heading the ball forward, is that passage of play (the second) completed the moment Mings chests the ball down? Mings chesting the ball down and going to play it with his left foot, is that another passage of play (the third)?

At the point Mings goes to play the ball with his left foot, Rodri is clearly onside, by the definition of having two opponents nearer to their goal-line than him. Rodri's first contact on the ball is from an onside position, and he was onside when Mings first played it (third phase?).

I'm not looking to dispute with anyone, but merely to highlight how confusing this thing about 'passage of play' is. I don't know when a passage of play clearly ends, and I suspect the officials don't know either. VAR doesn't help either, in that the Ref's assistants have been told not to put their flag up immediately for offsides, even when it is patently clear!

My honest take is that the moment the Man City player headed the ball forward, and Rodri was in an offside position at that time (which he was), he should have been flagged as such. End of problem...
 

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